Home Forums Hunting & Shooting Hunting Optics Why would the Schmidt Bender 1.5-6x42 Zenith be in the first focal plane?

I am considering this scope for my 308 for use in the woods (most shots under 150 yards) and am wondering why it is in the first focal plane (ffp).

I have read a ton on the differences between ffp and second focal plane scopes (sfp). The main advantage for ffp seems to be the ability to hold for wind or elevation at all magnification ranges, as the distance between subtensions in the reticle remain the same on all powers. This of course assumes the scope has a reticle with subtensions on the vertical and horizontal axises.

The disadvantage with ffp is at lower power the reticle can appear to disappear with ffp and on higher power appear too thick. The disappearing reticle on low power appears to be the more common complaint, but people have countered these issues can be mitigated to some degree with a good reticle design.

Getting back to my question, the Schmidt and Bender Zenith in the 1.5-6x42 is a ffp scope, but all the illuminated reticles consist of various plex models. Since this type of reticle isn't meant to compensate for wind or elevation holds, and shots under 300 yards (which is the range this scope is likely designed for) usually do not require holds, why make this scope in the first focal plane? What advantage(s) do you get over the possible disadvantages of a too small reticle on lower magnification to justify a ffp? It would seem a sfp design would be more appropriate.

Anyone have some thoughts that would make this clearer to me?


Thanks much.