As a scientist, I want to note that correlation does not imply causality. EVEN IF all these mass killers were taking psychotropic medications as stated, that does not PROVE that the medications CAUSED them to commit the murders. Any time correlation is observed, one must look for a possible common cause. PERHAPS the common cause in this case is that all these people committed the murders because they were mentally ill, AND they also were taking the medications because they were mentally ill. Obviously the medications didn't work as intended, which would be a better conclusion that to assume that the medications caused the violence.
As another example: Many people who die of heart attacks were found to have been taking nitrates, but that doesn't prove that nitrates cause heart attacks; it proves that people who die of heart attacks and those who take nitrates both do so because of a common factor: heart disease.
To infer that there would be fewer mass murders if psychotropic medications were eliminated is as faulty logic as to suggest that there would be fewer heart attacks if nitrates were eliminated.
