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Originally Posted by WMR
The Constitution, in The Bill of Rights, does not grant rights. It prohibits the Government from taking them away. Unalienable rights are endowed to all men by their Creator. Big difference. If Gov’t were the grantor, it could also take them away.

Illegals are part of 'all men'. So they have the same rights as citizens? Do illegals therefore have the right to be armed, religion, speech, assembly, etc?


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Originally Posted by AdventureBound
Allow me to further define my original questions.

When I say equal rights, I am considering right to vote, access to government services, right to own property, due legal process, etc.
Voting is/was a limited right. Ie. long ago it was men, land owners.
Depends on which services.
Owning property is not a right but a privilege/burden, depending.
Legal process is a right, I think, except on Jan. 6. miles


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Quote
Legal process is a right, I think, except on Jan. 6. miles
It IS a right and our government has unilaterally revoked it illegally. The SCOTUS should have stopped this farce long ago. Part of legal process is the right to a fast trial. The Brits had a habit of holding accused people for years without taking them to trial. The founders put that in the constitution to prevent exactly what they're doing to these people.


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Originally Posted by RL
Originally Posted by antelope_sniper
Originally Posted by Hastings
I've just now briefly looked over the constitution. There isn't much mention of the word citizen until after the civil war. The bill of rights is pretty liberal in the use of the words "the people" and "persons" so one would think that at the least a person here legally would acquire those rights.

Our Constitution was written during a time of open immigration and no government funded social welfare system.


As opposed to what??? I hope you are not saying the Constitution doesn't have the same power today as when it was written.

I'm saying it wasn't written to address the current situation.


You didn't use logic or reason to get into this opinion, I cannot use logic or reason to get you out of it.

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Originally Posted by Rock Chuck
Originally Posted by WMR
The Constitution, in The Bill of Rights, does not grant rights. It prohibits the Government from taking them away. Unalienable rights are endowed to all men by their Creator. Big difference. If Gov’t were the grantor, it could also take them away.

Illegals are part of 'all men'. So they have the same rights as citizens? Do illegals therefore have the right to be armed, religion, speech, assembly, etc?

I think generally, yes. The claim of "certain unalienable rights" is in The Declaration of Independence, which predated The Constitution by some years. Our rights to assembly, free speech, religion, and others, are NOT granted by The Bill of Rights. They existed before that. The Bill of Rights just makes it clear that Gov't will pass no law infringing upon them. They came from God, Not .gov. This is a very important distinction.

Edited to add: Since illegal immigrants have committed a crime by coming here, they may have forfeited some of their rights. Maybe one of the legal scholars will chime in to clarify.

Last edited by WMR; 02/21/24.
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How about this[voting]:
Fed employed, no voting in national elections[to include POTUS and congressional elections].

Same down the line, state & local levels.


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I agree with Geno (Valsdad) with one caveat.
Only property owners should be able to vote on bond issues.
Property owners are the ones who have to pay the tab for those. (At least here in NM)

As far as the original question, not equal rights - but human rights, yes.
I don't want China, or Chinese companies, owning property in the US, but citizens of Chinese descent should be able to.


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Because property taxes are not included in rent and retail prices.


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The constitution says that any rights not given the fed by the constitution belongs to the people or the states. Needless to say, that clause has been totally ignored by the fed. Citizenship was largely determined by the states. The use of the word 'citizen' in the constitution is vague but it does say that the president must be a natural born citizen. 'Natural born' has been debated but it generally means that you must have been a citizen at birth, not naturalized. Definitions get messy here.


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[quote]I don't want China, or Chinese companies, owning property in the US, but legal citizens of Chinese descent should be able to.quote]
changed a little, but I agree. miles


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Please keep posting with all of your opinions and information about what is permitted. Very much appreciated - your posts are thought provoking. Thank you each for taking the time to prepare cogent posts.

Originally Posted by mark shubert
I don't want China, or Chinese companies, owning property in the US, but citizens of Chinese descent should be able to.

As best as I understand, China does not permit non-citizens to own real estate within China; even if a foreigner were to marry a Chinese citizen and reside within China, only the Chinese citizen could hold title to real estate, such as a home. I do not know what applies when the Chinese spouse dies, but I suspect that the non-citizen spouse cannot inherit the real estate.

I also understand (I certainly could be wrong!) two further restrictions China places on non-citizens: (1) a non-citizen cannot have majority ownership of a business within China and (2) it is nearly impossible to transfer more than appx $25,000 USD out of China in a lifetime, even for Chinese citizens.

My preference would be that the USA enact reciprocal restrictions tailored to each country based on that country’s restrictions.

But, would these restrictions be constitutionally permissible?


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Originally Posted by antelope_sniper
Originally Posted by RL
Originally Posted by antelope_sniper
Originally Posted by Hastings
I've just now briefly looked over the constitution. There isn't much mention of the word citizen until after the civil war. The bill of rights is pretty liberal in the use of the words "the people" and "persons" so one would think that at the least a person here legally would acquire those rights.

Our Constitution was written during a time of open immigration and no government funded social welfare system.


As opposed to what??? I hope you are not saying the Constitution doesn't have the same power today as when it was written.

I'm saying it wasn't written to address the current situation.
You are right. That is why the process of amending was provided. Amending was purposely made difficult though.

Wouldn't it have been nice if the 2nd was worded a bit different to address the current situation. How about 'a well armed populace being necessary for the security of a free people the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed by the government of these United States, the states, or any subdivision thereof'.

Last edited by Hastings; 02/21/24. Reason: punctuation correction

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