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u "spell'in/grammer police" crack me up...Aoccdrnig to a rscheearch at Cmabrigde Uinervtisy, it deosn't mttaer in waht oredr the ltteers in a wrod are, the olny iprmoetnt tihng is taht the frist and lsat ltteer be at the rghit pclae. The rset can be a toatl mses and you can sitll raed it wouthit porbelm. Tihs is bcuseae the huamn mnid deos not raed ervey lteter by istlef, but the wrod as a wlohe.


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Irregardles, until Ken Howell chimes up, it's all water under the bridge.


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Originally Posted by BrentD
Originally Posted by deersmeller
I find the sentence clear and neutral in tone.


Seems like you aren't the only one. Everyone hear has pretty much come to the same conclusion about what author intended to say. Perhaps because that IS what the author actually said...

Given what passes for communication on the fire (my own missives included), I can't imagine why anyone would choose to pick on this sentence.


When Alejandrina Cabrera speaks English, it [referring to English] doesn't quite roll off of her tongue the way it [referring again to "English"] does when she speaks in her native Spanish. Well, of course English doesn't roll off her tongue when she speaks Spanish. I can't recall the grammar rule (indefinite something or other, probably).

In a published article in a national news forum about a woman who can barely speak English, the author screws up the first sentence.

Last edited by JRaw; 01/27/12.
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Originally Posted by Comrade_Cheese
Irregardles, until Ken Howell chimes up, it's all water under the bridge.


Been a long, long time since I really knew these rules; I'd really like to hear what he has to say.

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Originally Posted by Comrade_Cheese
Irregardles, until Ken Howell chimes up, it's all water under the bridge.


I think thats "regardless".

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The sentence sounds fine to me. Could be a regional thing. Who cares...

Don't overlook the theme of the entire article. Undermine the law.

Use PC terms and verbiage to distort perceptions, give rise to emotional reactions, and favor a minority in order to accomplish the theme.

I couldn't care less if the entire community spoke Spanish only. Eliminate the left slant. Disallow journalistic deviousness. Warping minds, with word games or any other method, is evil.

I'll ask again, is the Spanish language, too, being twisted and used to brainwash?



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Originally Posted by n007
Originally Posted by Comrade_Cheese
Irregardles, until Ken Howell chimes up, it's all water under the bridge.


I think thats "regardless".


You missed one.


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Originally Posted by Archerhunter
The sentence sounds fine to me. Could be a regional thing. Who cares...

Don't overlook the theme of the entire article. Undermine the law.

Use PC terms and verbiage to distort perceptions, give rise to emotional reactions, and favor a minority in order to accomplish the theme.

I couldn't care less if the entire community spoke Spanish only. Eliminate the left slant. Disallow journalistic deviousness. Warping minds, with word games or any other method, is evil.







I'll ask again, is the Spanish language, too, being twisted and used to brainwash?




...correct answer.

Last edited by noharleyyet; 01/27/12.




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Originally Posted by BrentD
Originally Posted by deersmeller
I find the sentence clear and neutral in tone.


Seems like you aren't the only one. Everyone hear has pretty much come to the same conclusion about what author intended to say. Perhaps because that IS what the author actually said...

Given what passes for communication on the fire (my own missives included), I can't imagine why anyone would choose to pick on this sentence.

Surprisingly, you actually have a point this time! smile


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Originally Posted by JRaw
So this article: Judge: Candidate's grasp of English is too poor for her to run for office

...leads off with this sentence: "When Alejandrina Cabrera speaks English, it doesn't quite roll off of her tongue the way it does when she speaks in her native Spanish."

Am I correct in finding this sentence ironic or am I just a dumb former in-jun-eer?
Reading it a few times, I see the problem. The second "it" needs clarification.

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Originally Posted by atvalaska
u "spell'in/grammer police" crack me up...Aoccdrnig to a rscheearch at Cmabrigde Uinervtisy, it deosn't mttaer in waht oredr the ltteers in a wrod are, the olny iprmoetnt tihng is taht the frist and lsat ltteer be at the rghit pclae. The rset can be a toatl mses and you can sitll raed it wouthit porbelm. Tihs is bcuseae the huamn mnid deos not raed ervey lteter by istlef, but the wrod as a wlohe.

Fkcunig azmanig!


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Subordinate clause that began with subordinate conjunction (when) was correctly attached to the main clause....nitt pickin'

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"When" leads are forbidden in a news reporting; that's Journalism 101. And starting a "when" lead with the word "when" is about as egregious as "when" lead can get.

Then again, contractions, run-on sentences, passive verbs and errors of fact also are frowned upon, but that didn't seem to hold him/her/it back either.

Last edited by XL5; 01/27/12.

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Originally Posted by RockyRaab
"Alejandrina Cabrera is far less fluent in English than in her native Spanish." That's how an editor might re-write the sentence.

A writer trying to add some style might cast it as "Spanish runs gracefully off Alejandrina Cabrera's tongue; English stumbles."



Depends on what the definition of the word "is", is.


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Originally Posted by The_Real_Hawkeye
Originally Posted by JRaw
So this article: Judge: Candidate's grasp of English is too poor for her to run for office

...leads off with this sentence: "When Alejandrina Cabrera speaks English, it doesn't quite roll off of her tongue the way it does when she speaks in her native Spanish."

Am I correct in finding this sentence ironic or am I just a dumb former in-jun-eer?
Reading it a few times, I see the problem. The second "it" needs clarification.


Remove "the way", replace with "as".


"I have sworn upon the altar of God, eternal hostility against every form of tyranny over the mind of man."
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Originally Posted by oldgeezer
Subordinate clause that began with subordinate conjunction (when) was correctly attached to the main clause....nitt pickin'

What dat mean? smile


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Originally Posted by JRaw
So this article: Judge: Candidate's grasp of English is too poor for her to run for office

...leads off with this sentence: "When Alejandrina Cabrera speaks English, it doesn't quite roll off of her tongue the way it does when she speaks in her native Spanish."

Am I correct in finding this sentence ironic or am I just a dumb former in-jun-eer?

I don't think it's a case of irony. It's a case of nonsense because the writer has failed to make his antecedents clear. We know what he means, but he does not say what he means. (Yes, I know "he" is an assumption. Live with it.)

The sentence says: "When Alejandrina Cabrera speaks English, English doesn't quite roll off of her tongue the way English does when she speaks in her native Spanish." Obviously, that's nonsense. No one (not even a Pentecostal) can have English rolling off his tongue while speaking Spanish. There are lots of ways to correct it, but I don't care which way anyone chooses.

I don't know whether Ms. Cabrera's English is too poor for her to be a judge, but the person who wrote the news story has language skills too poor to be a journalist.

Steve.


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When speaking English, the words don't roll off her tongue quite the same as they would when speaking in her native Spanish.


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...it wastes your time and annoys the pig!
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