No,no. Due process is a different thing. It's all wrapped up in, “No State shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States.” (If you read in context it's clear that "the state" means any of the several states.)
The rights embodied within the Bill of Rights are generally found to be within the privileges and immunities" stated in the 14th Amendment (on a case by case basis, can't think of an exception). Second Amendment for example Hence the Court held that state lav cannot be violative of the right to keep and bear arms..
Doesn't hold water.
As to the Second Amendment, it IS a right enumerated and for all citizens by the Constitution, so using 2A as your argument is specious.
It does state that States can deprive with due process. It also fails to define "privileges and immunities"
"shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law".
14A has been interpreted to go far beyond the script, and I'm not complaining.
