i am probably off on the dates but i want to say around 1900 it was ruled you could not use property ownership as a requirement prior to voting. I think it had to do with the disenfranchising of the black population.
Indians in the majority of the states, ethnic north american indians that is didn't get to vote until 1924, and i think not until 1956 in utah.
Last edited by RoninPhx; 11/13/15.
