Note how artfully I dodged the actual question.
I wonder if...let's say your scope is factory set for no parallax at 100, you set up targets at 100, 250 and 500, you do the head wobble at all 3 targets recording your estimation of parallax shift in moa or whatever. F'rinstance, let's say you estimate zero shift @ 100, 1 moa @ 250 and 2 moa @ 500. OK, then you get your scope tuned to have zero shift at 250...could you then interpolate that at 100 you will have 1 moa possible error and then at 500 you will have 1 moa possible error? My guess is no, it doesn't look like a uniform numerical progression when you look at the yardage marks on an adjustable parallax objective bell. But, more confusing, is that just a function of an incompatible number of threads per inch on the adjustment? Oh, my head hurts, I'm going to have a beer. Ask Mathman.
