Originally Posted by Barkoff
“The folks taking meds are likely already prohibited from owing a firearm.”

Why? Are the effects of the drugs somehow different than the effects of bipolar on the brain?



Prohibited ownership includes: Who has been adjudicated as a mental defective or has been committed to any mental institution;

If they're on drugs to modify their behavior after there has been an intervention then there is a very high likelihood that they fall into the first category to some degree. But I'm no mental health professional.

If the drugs work, and they take them, then I imagine they don't but how they establish a clean bill of health I don't know and that concerns me.


If something on the internet makes you angry the odds are you're being manipulated