Originally Posted by Starman
Originally Posted by The_Real_Hawkeye
"Go and sin no more" can only make sense in the context of free will.

Scriptural examples I cited are contra
to the free will claim..perhaps you can
address those.
What? This?

"Scripture shows absence of free will.

God hardened Pharaoh's heart against Moses
and Jesus followed his father's will, not his own."

God hardening Pharaoh's heart doesn't provide a proof against the general freedom of human will. Pharaoh first chose to operate against God, and only after this did God choose to harden his heart.

Jesus followed his father's will because it is his nature to do so, but he isn't an example of an ordinary man. He's a man, but also divine, and his human will is in perfect alignment with his divine will.

Jesus was never internally tempted to sin, since the devil's temptations had no effect on him, as they may have had on an ordinary man.


Even in the Garden of Gethsemane, where it appeared that there was a division between his will and that of the Father, he (even in his human nature) ultimately chose God's will as his own.

"Not my will, but thine be done."