Does anyone think that your more restrictive (as compared with the US) gun laws have reduced crime? Did the laws passed in the 1990s (including confiscation) cause any reduction of crime? Or were there demographic factors involved.
Here in the US, homicides by ethnic group are 19.8 per 100,000 for blacks, 6.4 per 100,000 for Hispanics, and only 1.7 per 100,000 for whites. The 1.7 figure is lower than most European countries.
Firearm related deaths were on the decline since before the tighter restrictions were introduced, but any real effect of the restrictions would only be speculation since we don't have a "control" group to compare against.
We don't really have the social racial segregation that the US has - I think that most of our firearm violence is crime related without any racial factors. It's more a case of "Where's my money? I want my money!"
Originally Posted by mauserand9mm
Originally Posted by mauserand9mm
Originally Posted by Raspy
Whatever you said...everyone knows you are a lying jerk.
That's a bold assertion. Point out where you think I lied.
