Originally Posted by antlers
Originally Posted by RockyRaab
We could read from the First Book of Ezra - except that it was one that the Synod of Hippo "voted out" of the Bible.
If the Bible is inspired by God, and one of its books got “voted out” by man, does that negate the rest of it...? If the Bible is inspired by God, and one of its books got ”voted out” by man, does that mean that all of the rest of it is no longer inspired by God...?
It was decided by people who had the authority to judge and were deemed worthy of having that authority passed on to them through apostolic succession.
The actual inclusion was based on 4 criteria:
Apostolic Origin - attributed to and/or based on the preaching/teaching of the first-generation apostles (or their closest companions).
Universal Acceptance - acknowledged by all major Christian communities in the Mediterranean world (by the end of the fourth century).
Liturgical Use - read publicly along with the OT when early Christians gathered for the Lord’s Supper (their weekly worship services).
Consistent Message - containing theological ideas compatible with other accepted Christian writings (incl. the divinity and humanity Jesus).
Two other criteria that make themselves apparent by the selections were that the book be universally applicable and also that it make a unique contribution. For example, The Shepherd of Hermas was a candidate for inclusion, but was decided that it was private revelation and not universally applicable plus it didn't contain anything that wasn't found elsewhere. This doesn't mean that the Shepherd of Hermas is a bad book to read, but it's unnecessary. You could put the great Didache in the same group. Although it was universal in application, it didn't fit the uniqueness along with not being used in liturgy.

You could get good answers to these questions by reading one or both books I referenced.


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