Why do you accuse him of ignoring the clear words of Jesus when you do the same? Remember the “Jesus and the disciples leveraged the Jews” with OT text and the “OT scriptures were for the Jewish people”. Christ wasn’t preached to the Gentiles from the OT text yet you have been supplied examples that clearly document the OT text being preached to Gentiles who were brought into the faith?
Go ahead and post up where I said exactly what you’ve attributed to me with your quotation marks above.
