5 pages of this and I am a little lost. I am reading this like hunters were trespassing on private land (corner of the property) to get to public land that is otherwise inaccessible from that area. Is that correct?
The hunters never set foot on private property. The private property owner wanted sole control of public land he does not own.
Not sure about slippery slope. No foot was set on private property and the owner even harassed people who flew aircraft in to the publicly owned land.
I am aware of a couple of incidents in the 1980's where people were in the process of buying a narrow strip of land from a public agency surrounding a large area of publicly owned land and another where property owners were selling a large tract of land to a public agency less a owned tract completely surrounding what was to be publicly owned and both attempts got torpedoed.
