Well, some have claimed Jesus is fully God,
No claim but FACT. He is fully man and fully GOD.
Acts 4:10 "Whom "GOD" raised from the dead"
John 2: 19 "Destroy this temple and in three days "I" will raise it up. (Spoken by the Son/God)
John 1:1-2 "In the beginning was the Word (Son) and the Word was with God and the Word WAS GOD
He was in the beginning with God."
Jesus is a subordinate and not equal to God the Father.
"who being in the form of God did not consider it robbery to be
equal with God"
vs 7 but made Himself of no reputation, taking the form of a bond servant and coming
in the likeness of men."
Matthew24:36
"But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only."
"The Revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave Him to show His servants--things which must shortly take place.
After Jesus Ascension, God gave Him all revelation concerning His 2nd coming.
Jesus did not say he would himself direct angels to his side, he said he could call
on /ask his Father to deliver angles to his side.
Matthew 26:53
As fully man, he prayed as a man, but at the same time was He fully God, (who was incapable of sinning btw).
As a man He was totally dependent of the Father, He was limited to His Fathers will in His time on earth.
Jesus is the appointed conduit that the supreme Father operates through.
What? Where did you get that from?
Col 1:16 "For by Him (Jesus) ALL THINGS were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers, ALL THINGS were created through and for Him."
vs 17 "And He is before ALL THINGS and in Him ALL THINGS consist."
Also................
1 John 5:19 "And we know that the Son of God has come and has given us and understanding, that we may know Him who is true,
and we are in Him who is true,
in His SON JESUS CHRIST...THIS IS THE TRUE GOD and eternal life."
2nd John vs 9 "He who abides in the doctrine of Christ has both the Father and the Son."
vs 10 "If anyone comes to you and does not bring this doctrine do not receive him into your house nor greet him."
Originally Posted by Tom264
The second death is the death of ones soul and spirit.
Then they will cease to exist.
Yep.
and the fact that they will cease to exist for all eternity, is in itself a form of eternal punishment,
ie; they will never be resurrected from the 2nd death....the punishment stands!
This statement is so false......
"Forever and ever"...- Eternally. Greek..."To the aion and aion" To the ages of the ages. It is an expression which signifies eternity, endlessness, not merely a period of indefinite time.
Nowhere does the Bible teach annihiliationism , or the destruction of Satan or the wicked. The bible teaches eternal punishment, eternal torment of the damned.
There is no way to be able to explain away the terribleness of these words "for ever and for ever"
The same expression is used in these verses as well.........
..Of God and glory due to Him...Gal 1:15,, Phil 4:20
..Of the Lamb...Rev 4:9-10, 5:13-14
..Of the wrath of God on the wicked..Rev 19:3, 20:10
..Of the saints reigning with Christ Rev 22:5
..Of the Lake of Fire and Brimstone and associated torment...Rev 20:10 Jude 13, 2 Pet 2:17
As eternal as God and the LAMB are, as eternal as everlasting life to the redeemed, so are the eternal torments for the damned, for the unredeemed --"forever and ever."
If Gehenna is not everlasting, then neither do the saints have an everlasting life.
