I haven't read all of this thread. In fact, very little of it. And, I should know better to get into a debate with those who are smarter than me. But if I did, I would never get to argue! But, AS, I tried to find the definition of a prophecy that you cited and couldn't find it. As far as the prophecy being clear, clear to whom? The Bible tells us that the Word of God is spiritually discerned by those who know the Lord. For example, I had a conversation with a Muslim one time who was being taught that Jesus could not be the Messiah because He told His disciples that His "time had not yet come". To a believer, we know that He was simply telling them that He could not go to Jerusalem as they wanted Him to for His time to die had not yet come.
And none of the definitions I looked at said that a prophecy had to be fulfillable at a single occurrence. Couldn't find that. Not saying that it isn't out there somewhere, just that the first several online definitions I googled didn't say that so I didn't see the use in going on. For many OT prophecies, there was an imminent application and an eschatological application. For instance, in the book of Zephaniah, God lets Judah know that He is going to bring judgment upon them through the new rising power in that day, the Babylonians, because of Judah's idolatry. That was imminent and it happened fairly quickly. Obviously, that happened when they took Judah into captivity.
However, the book's prophecies also point to the end of the age, The Day of the Lord. I realize that there are many different interpretations of the Book of Revelation, but it is my understanding that the 7 years of tribulation is for the nation of Israel to be saved. Not that all will be saved, but many will. So...I don't see where your definition holds up, at least to the definitions I saw (and these were secular dictionaries and not Bible ones).
