Both can't be true. If salvation purely through grace is true, one's works are irrelevant.
You're clueless as usual.....
Resorting to ad homs, as usual.
Originally Posted by JGRaider
James 2:14–26 is sometimes taken out of context in an attempt to create a works-based system of righteousness, but that is contrary to many other passages of Scripture. James is not saying that our works make us righteous before God but that real saving faith is demonstrated by good works.
Faith without works is a dead faith because the lack of works reveals an unchanged life or a spiritually dead heart. There are many verses that say that true saving faith will result in a transformed life, that faith is demonstrated by the works we do. How we live reveals what we believe and whether the faith we profess to have is a living faith. Many profess to be Christians, but their lives and priorities indicate otherwise. Jesus put it this way: “By their fruits you will know them.
The logic is not hard to grasp.
If it is ''by grace you have been saved, through faith—and this is not from yourselves, it is the gift of God and not by works, so that no one can boast, works are not needed, all have fallen short but are saved through grace, not works.
Yet we have "a person is justified by works and not by faith alone”
The former tells us that works have no bearing on justification or salvation by Grace that faith is sufficient, yet the latter states that a person is justified by works, not faith alone, which contradicts salvation through faith and grace alone.
It can be one or the other, but both can't be true.
If we have salvation though faith and grace alone, works doesn't come into it. Yet we are told it does.
Context is a poor excuse. Context does not transform what these verses are clearly stating into something opposite.
Then again, logic is not a strong point with religion and faith.
