Originally Posted by antelope_sniper
Originally Posted by JoeBob
So why is okay to impute motives and intentions to the rednecks based on their race, location, and alleged attitudes towards blacks while not doing the same for the black victim? If it’s okay to say that the reason that these men set upon this innocent jogger is because they were racists white men, then why is it taboo to say that the black man was probably a thief who if he didn’t deserve whatever he got, at least brought it upon himself by his criminal actions?
Job Bob, you don't just get to declare someone a thief based upon their race. If you have convincing evidence, the kind sufficient to support probably cause that he committed a felony, present it.
But you seem to think it's OK to impute motive and intention on some white guy just because he's white. How convenient. I don't remember you being part of the "let's see all the evidence" crowd.

BTW, have you ever had a hostile firearm pointed at you?

You seem to know how someone should act in such a situation. Tell us how correct Ahmaud's actions were.

Maybe you could leave your blind racism out and speculate how things could have been different if Ahmaud had behaved differently.


Politics is War by Other Means