Originally Posted by Thunderstick
We need to remember that we are no longer under that covenant of law by which the Hebrews were governed--but it was necessary for their preservation in a time when nations regularly practiced genocide without boundaries. If you are trying to draw contemporary comparisons then this question is really best addressed to a Jew who, unlike the Christian, believes the full OT moral code is still in effect.



7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.

8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:

9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.

10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: