Originally Posted by DBT
Originally Posted by Thunderstick
Originally Posted by DBT
Originally Posted by Thunderstick
Originally Posted by DBT
Once again, this is not a case of sceptics arguing morality from their own values or interpretations but what the bible itself says about love, morality, mercy, tolerance.

The Bible coheres for those who embrace a Biblical morality but will not always cohere with an outside morality. I cannot make the Bible satisfy your morality because it is vastly different and it is your differing morality which sees contradictions at times in areas where we see perfect balance between two points in tension.



That's the same dodge being used again and again...this has nothing to do with who 'embraces' this or that morality. It has has nothing to do with what you happen to believe or what I happen to believe.....this is purely and simply about what the bible describes and what the bible defines in terms of love and morality.



Did you read my explanation above? That explanation will make sense to a Christian or Jew. It will not make sense to an infidel. The Bible will always be hidden to those who reject its message no matter how much they study it. As Jesus said seeing they shall see and not perceive. Conversely an unbelievers moral reasoning can appear very distorted to believers. In the case above though that logic shouldn't be that difficult to follow.




Your explanation is false for the given reasons. The words and descriptions we have in the bible cannot be interpreted to mean something other than what the words and descriptions actually say and mean.

The words and descriptions do not change if the reader happens to be Hindu, Christian, Jew or sceptic.

Your objection fails to account for the contradictions that are clearly there to be seen and read.


My explanation would make a lot sense to other religions with holy days but it won't make any sense to someone who rejects anything holy.