Do you equate the alleged "prime mover" with the classical God of Christianity, and if so, how do you logically move from the former to the latter?
Yes. Thomas Aquinas got famous with that approach. Wrote a book on it, "Summa Theologica" which I'm not qualified to explain even if I wanted to. It's a big book. It was and is a basis for religious thought in the Roman Catholic Church and hence for the reformist sects.
I've never found Aquinas's arguments to be convincing. Too many logical fallacies and unsupported assertions.
It's a fine example of how 'reason' without evidence and testing of assumptions can go terribly wrong.
